Would just like to ask, in case a marriage was declared void because of bigamy (the husband was married to another woman previously) and his share was forfeited in favor of the 1st family, will his share of the 2nd marriage's estate be governed by this device?
An Affidavit of Contributions stating the properties of the couple (2nd marriage) and who contributed what financially in the purchase of these properties duly signed by both man and woman and notarized.
If wife #2 and husband both agree in that affidavit that wife #2 paid for 80% of their properties and husband paid for 20%, is the 20% the only sum the 1st wife is entitled for forfeiture?
Evidence of this is in the family business (corporation), wife holds 95% of the shares and husband only holds 5% of the shares. The family business is the source of the money used to buy the properties.
Complicated yes but would appreciate any opinion. thanks!