I’m talking about this big company that issued a memo requiring its employees to come to work on holidays. They are saying that because of this, these holidays are now considered working days. Thus, if an employee decides not come to work on these said holidays, then these days would have to be charged to vacation leave (or salary deduction if there’s no more VL credit) consistent with how absences are dealt with.
I’ve already raised this to HR and even talked to the company lawyer who told me that the above is within the Labor Law, but I just can’t buy it because I think it’s unfair and doesn’t make sense. Because if it does, then it means any employer can just issue a memo declaring all holidays of the year as working days and we’ll all end up with no holiday at all!
I hope someone can explain how all these really works. And if the company is wrong here, what would be my next best move to correct this?
Thanks!