hello. sorry i can't let go of the idea.
i want to try applying it in court for i know the divorce decree is as valid in the USA as it should be in Philippines.
my ex-husband was the one who filed for the uncontested divorce. he was the one who paid for it. he was the one who processed it. all i did was sign it. there are papers showing that it was him who obtained the divorce.
the Family code states
Where a marriage between a Filipino citizen and a foreigner is validly celebrated and a divorce is thereafter validly obtained abroad by the alien spouse capacitating him or her to remarry, the Filipino spouse shall have capacity to remarry under Philippine law.
I insist that it states the word obtained and it is far from the word petitioner or plaintiff.The lawyers I asked interpret it according to how others may look at it or probably in reference to other cases about it. i have my own way of interpreting it and i wanna go to court or whatever to prove just that.
first fact, i am not an American. never been to the US. how am i able to obtain a divorce if not for my ex-American husband?
second, the US court approved the divorce in the US therefore if it is valid in the US court then why not in Philippines since whatever laws apply to a foreign national is also applicable under Philippine law?
third fact, there are papers to prove that my ex-husband was the one who filed for the divorce and not me.
therefore, it is indeed my former American spouse who obtained the divorce and not me regardless if i was the one who was written as the petitioner/plaintiff.
it's what i really want to prove. so where should i start? it's just really a matter of proving that the word obtained in the family code can imply different, varied meanings.
please help give light to this matter. thank you.