Hi,
I have an inquiry which is a bit complicated. My father has sold 2/3 of the land he inherited from his father in 1995. The buyer failed to pay him in full so there was no Absolute Deed of Sale executed. Now, after almost 20 years, he is still not paid and my father decided to use the land as he believed the contract is rendered void due to the buyer not able to pay in full term. Pls advise what is the correct status of this land today? Is this still under my father's? Really appreciate the advise. Thanks.
I have an inquiry which is a bit complicated. My father has sold 2/3 of the land he inherited from his father in 1995. The buyer failed to pay him in full so there was no Absolute Deed of Sale executed. Now, after almost 20 years, he is still not paid and my father decided to use the land as he believed the contract is rendered void due to the buyer not able to pay in full term. Pls advise what is the correct status of this land today? Is this still under my father's? Really appreciate the advise. Thanks.