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Me(26) and my fiancé(25) are planning to get married and currently acquring all necessary requirements. All seem good except for the parental advice confusion. The revised family code states that aparental consent is needed for parties aged between 18 and 21, and a parental advice for parties aged between 21 and 25.
Are those "between age" statements inclusive or exclusive? If they are inclusive, does it mean that a party that is 21 years old require both consent and advice? If exclusive, that means my fiancé doesn't need a parental advice anymore?
From what ive read in the dictionary, between statements are grammatically exclusive. While others say it's contextual. I'm confused on which to follow.
Also, if this law is contextual, I think it needs to be revised.
Are those "between age" statements inclusive or exclusive? If they are inclusive, does it mean that a party that is 21 years old require both consent and advice? If exclusive, that means my fiancé doesn't need a parental advice anymore?
From what ive read in the dictionary, between statements are grammatically exclusive. While others say it's contextual. I'm confused on which to follow.
Also, if this law is contextual, I think it needs to be revised.
