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Good day,
I would like to know , if it is legal to sell the house named by the deceased wife (not married in the title ) ( titled by her maiden name ) of the husband. They were married by 1991 and the house was been assumed by the deceased wife by 1986 . As of now they have 2 childrens . The husband garmented the house titled by her late wife , with their signature of the youngest child, the older child did not signed the contract for garment . The husband forged the signature of the older child. How can the older child file a case against her father for forgering the signature , and is it possible that the person who accepted the garment title can get the house with a forged contract. And is it possible to sell the house titled by the deceased wife with a maiden name by the husband ? is the children must sign first before selling legally the house?
Thank you !
I would like to know , if it is legal to sell the house named by the deceased wife (not married in the title ) ( titled by her maiden name ) of the husband. They were married by 1991 and the house was been assumed by the deceased wife by 1986 . As of now they have 2 childrens . The husband garmented the house titled by her late wife , with their signature of the youngest child, the older child did not signed the contract for garment . The husband forged the signature of the older child. How can the older child file a case against her father for forgering the signature , and is it possible that the person who accepted the garment title can get the house with a forged contract. And is it possible to sell the house titled by the deceased wife with a maiden name by the husband ? is the children must sign first before selling legally the house?
Thank you !
