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Hi Atty's,
Seeking your advise po.
When buying a land from a non legally seperated seller, is the wife written consent needed? The land title belongs solely to the seller as he inherited it while still being single. I assume he married beyond 1988 as he is still young. To my understanding, the land even if title to the husband alone forms part of a conjugal property. Without this knowledge, a deed of sale was executed and the signatory party is the husband alone. What are the available options po to remedy the earlier deed of sale. Is there a form or type of written consent for the wife to sign? If the wife sign a written consent even after the deed of sale was made, is it okay?
Thanks so much to clarify po.
Seeking your advise po.
When buying a land from a non legally seperated seller, is the wife written consent needed? The land title belongs solely to the seller as he inherited it while still being single. I assume he married beyond 1988 as he is still young. To my understanding, the land even if title to the husband alone forms part of a conjugal property. Without this knowledge, a deed of sale was executed and the signatory party is the husband alone. What are the available options po to remedy the earlier deed of sale. Is there a form or type of written consent for the wife to sign? If the wife sign a written consent even after the deed of sale was made, is it okay?
Thanks so much to clarify po.
