Multiple Choice Question

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Q#1:
A draws a bill payable to B or order with X, as the drawee. The bill was successively endorsed to C, D, E and F, holder. X does not pay and F has duly protested non-payment. Y pays for the honor of C.

Which of the following statement is wrong?

a. D is discharged.
b. E is discharged.
c. C is discharged.
d. Y can ask reimbursement from A.

Answer: C

All parties subsequent to the party whose honor it is paid are discharged but the payor for honor is subrogated for, and succeeds to both the rights and duties of the holder as regards for the party whose honor he pays and all the parties liable to the latter.

Q#2:
When an endorser waives presentment and notice of dishonor, he increases his liability. His endorsement is:

a. Facultative endorsement
b. Qualified endorsement
c. Alternative endorsement
d. Restrictive endorsement

Answer: A

A facultative endorsement is one where the indorser enlarges his liability by waiving the usual deman and notice of dishonor.

Q#3:
Ariel issued a note to Brando. There was a total failure of consideration. Brando issued the note for consideration to Cecil who is a holder in due course. Cecil indorsed the note to David who knew of the failure of consideration. Can David successfully collect from Ariel?

a. No, because David knew the failure of consideration.
b. No, although David acquired the rights of Cecil, a holder in due course and he was not a party to any illegality.
c. Yes, because David acquired the note for consideration.
d. No, becuase David is not a holder in due course.

Answer: C

Sec. 58 of Negotiable Instrument Law provides that in the hands of any holder other than the holder in due course, the negotiable instrument is subject to any defenses as if it were non-negotiable. But a holder who derives through a holder in due course and who is not a party to any fraud or illegality affecting the instrument, has all the rights of such former holder in respect of all parties prior to the latter.

David, a holder in due course, may go against Ariel beacuse of Sec. 58. David acquired all the rights of Cecil, a holder in due course. It is worth noting the David acquired the rights of Cecil because he was not a party to fraud; otherwise, he would be disqualified.

ang galing naman ng sample ng multiple choice questions we hope there will be more. thank you

meron dito marami, buy book of soriano: CPA reviewer on business law, 200 plus ang MCQ per subject:

negotiable inst.
sales
corpo
etc

sana mas marami pa sample MCQs na pede upload..tnx.

buy book of soriano, php 500.00 may mga sample mcqs

try nio din mga CPA reviewer (business law), customs broker reviewer (tax), and yung reviewer sa criminology:

SAMPLE:

1. Badong, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was the crime committed?
a. Murder
b. Parricide
c. Homicide
d. Qualified Homicide
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on suspicion that Totoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
a. Trespass to Dwelling
b. Violation of Domicile
c. Usurpation Of Authority
d. Forcible Trespassing
3. Berung and Betang had been married for more than six months. They live together with the children of Betang from her first husband. Berung had sexual relationship with Bea, the 14 year old daughter of Betang. Bea love Berung very much. What was the crime committed by Berung, if any?
a. Simple Seduction
b. Qualified Seduction
c. Consented Abduction
d. Rape
4. Prof. Dabcat gave a failing grade to one of his students, Sixto. When the two met the following day, Sixto slapped Prof. Dabcat on the face. What was the crime committed by Sixto?
a. Corruption of Public Officials
b. Direct Assault
c. Slight Physical Injuries
d. Grave Coercion
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Pekto for the killing of his parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him, Pekto gave him 1 million Pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Pekto. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
a. Indirect Bribery
b. Direct Bribery
c. Corruption of Public Officials
d. Qualified Bribery
6. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death.
a. parol evidence b. ante mortem statement
c. suicide note d. dead man statute
7. The meaning of factum probans.
a. preponderance of evidence
b. ultimate fact
c. evidentiary fact
d. sufficiency of evidence
8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another.
a. inheritance
b. heritage
c. pedigree
d. culture
9. The authority of the court to take cognisance of the case in the first instance.
a. Appellate Jurisdiction
b. General Jurisdiction
c. Original Jurisdiction
d. Exclusive Jurisdiction
10. A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.
a. Counsel de officio
b. Attorney on record
c. Attorney at law
d. Special counsel
11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary Procedure?
a. Violation of rental laws
b. Violation of traffic laws
c. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
d. The penalty does not exceed 6 months imprisonment
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.
a. jurisdiction b. jurisprudence
c. venue d. bench
13. The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.
a. RA 6425 b. RA 8353
c. BP 22 d. RA 6975
14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to gain, by means of force and intimidation.
a. qualified theft b. robbery
c. theft d. malicious mischief
15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will, whether right or wrong.
a. grave threat b. grave coercion
c. direct assault d. slander by deed
16. Persons having no apparent means of subsistence but has the physical ability to work and neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling.
a. pimps b. prostitutes
c. gang members d. vagrants
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult.
a. tumultuous b. charivari
c. sedition d. scandal
18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another person to change his residence.
a. violation of domicile b. arbitrary detention
c. expulsion d. direct assault
19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person without legal grounds.
a. illegal detention b. arbitrary detention
c. forcible abduction d. forcible detention
20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be married, although the marriage be later declared void.
a. concubinage b. bigamy
c. adultery d. immorality
21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.
a. 15-18 years old b. 18-70 years old
c. 9 years old and below d. between 9 & 15 years old
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
a. accomplices b. suspects
c. principal actors d. accessories
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
a. prescription of crime
b. prescription of prosecution
c. prescription of judgement
d. prescription of penalty
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.
a. pardon b. commutation
c. amnesty d. reprieve
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.
a. mala prohibita b. mala in se
c. private crimes d. public crimes
26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the discharge of his public duties.
a. qualified bribery b. direct bribery
c. estafa d. indirect bribery
27. The wilful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.
a. libel b. falsification
c. perjury d. slander
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.
a. treachery b. evident premeditation
c. ignominy d. cruelty
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a crime.
a. gang b. conspiracy
c. band d. piracy
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
a. negligence b. imprudence
c. omission d. act
31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
a. misfeasance b. entrapment
c. inducement d. instigation
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
a. impossible crimes
b. aggravating circumstances
c. absolutory causes
d. complex crimes
33. An alternative circumstance.
a. insanity b. intoxication
c. passion or obfuscation d. evident premeditation
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty, what shall be entered for him?
a. a plea of not guilty b. a plea of guilty
c. a plea of mercy d.plea of surrender
35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information?
a. at any time before his arrest
b. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
d. Monday morning
36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval.
a. arraignment b. plea bargaining
c. preliminary investigation d. trial
37. The security given for the release of a person in custody, furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by law.
a. subpoena b. recognizance
c. bail d. warrant
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue.
a. trial b. arraignment
b. pre-trial d. judgment
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
a. trial b. pre-trial
c. arraignment d. judgment
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
a. pre-trial b. arraignment
c. preliminary investigation d. plea bargaining
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
a. secondary evidence b. prima facie evidence
c. corroborative evidence d. best evidence
42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
a. secondary evidence b. prima facie evidence
c. corroborative evidence d. best evidence
43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
a. documentary evidence b.testimonial evidence
c. material evidence d. real evidence
44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
a. positive evidence b.corroborative evidence
c. secondary evidence d. negative evidence
45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
a. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense
b. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense
c. subject of the offense
d. all of the above
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their perception to others.
a. suspects b. witnesses
c. victims d. informers
47. The unlawful destruction, or the bringing forth prematurely, of human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in death.
a. abortion b. infanticide
c. murder d. parricide
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained.
a. alarm and scandal
b. mysterious homicide
c. death under exceptional circumstances
d. tumultuous affray
49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the cognisance of which pertains to another rtribunal.
a. legal question b. juridical question
c. prejudicial question d. judicial question
50. The offender has been previously punished for an offense to which the law attaches an equal or greater penalty or two or more crimes to which it attaches a lighter penalty.
a. reiteracion b. recidivism
b. quasi-recidivism d. habitual delinquency
51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
a. impossible crime b. mistake of facts
c. accidental crime d. complex crime
52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….
a. 36 hours b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours d. 72 hours
53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.
a. ignorantia legis non excusat b. parens patriae
c. res ipsa loquitur d. dura lex sed lex
54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property were if not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.
a. compound crime b. impossible crime
c. complex crime d. accidental crime
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.
a. RA 5425 b. RA 8553
c. RA 7659 d. RA 8551
56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime.
a. discernment b. insanity
c. epilepsy d. imbecility
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or author.
a. responsibility b. duty
c. guilt d. imputability
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it comes about through some acts of our will, lies beyond the bounds of humanly foreseeable consequences.
a. fortuitous event b. fate
c. accident d. destiny
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party , any peace officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
a. subpoena b. information
c. complaint d. writ
60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can, the conviction of an innocent person.
a. right to due process of law
b. presumption of innocence
c. right to remain silent
d. right against self-incrimination
61. Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices, usages and rules of action which are not recognized in our country.
a. penal laws b. special laws
c. common laws d. statutory laws
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability.
a. exempting b. alternative
c. justifying d. aggravating
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
a. exempting b. alternative
c. justifying d. aggravating
64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffer slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
a. ignominy b. cruelty
c. treachery d. masochism
65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
a. recidivism b. habitual delinquency
c. reiteracion d. quasi-recidivism
66. Alevosia means
a. craft b. treachery
c. evident premeditation d. cruelty
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial.
a. ex post facto law
b. equal protection of the law
c. rule of law
d. due process of law
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
a. recidivist b. quasi-recidivist
c. habitual delinquent d. hardened criminal
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.
a. Primary b. Best
c. Secondary d. Conclusive
70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.
a. Primary b. Best
c. Secondary d. Conclusive
71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party requires.
a. leading b. misleading
c. stupid d. hearsay
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged to have committed a crime, and for their punishment in case of conviction.
a. Criminal Law b. Criminal Evidence
c. Criminal Procedure d. Criminal Jurisprudence
73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.
a. 20 years b. 15 years
c. 10 years d. 40 years
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.
a. accomplices b. accessories
c. instigators d. principals
75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another person.
a. libel
b. slander by deed
c. incriminating innocent person
d. intriguing against honor
76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done.
a. misfeasance b. malfeasance
c. nonfeasance d. dereliction
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an authorized magistrate or officer.
a. subpoena b. writ
c. warrant d. affidavit
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without authority of law.
a. alias b. common name
c. fictitious name d. screen name
79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving the same.
a. quasi-recidivism b. recidivism
c. reiteracion d. charivari
80. Which of the following is not a person in authority.
a. Municipal mayor b. Private School Teacher
c. Police Officer d. Municipal Councilor
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or disturbances in the State.
a. Sedition b. Rebellion
c. Treason d. Coup d’ etat
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.
a. 30 days b. 15 days
c. 10 days d. 60 days
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public officer or employee.
a. illegal detention b. arbitrary detention
c. compulsory detention d. unauthorized detention
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.
a. treason b. espionage
c. rebellion d. coup d’ etat
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.
a. sanctuary b. prison
c. jail d. dwelling
86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right and wrong.
a. treachery b. premeditation
c. recidivism d. discernement
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.
a. Estafa b. Murder
c. Rebellion d. Rape
88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is intended.
a. Aberratio ictus b. Error in personae
c. Dura Lex Sed lex d. Praeter Intentionem
89. It means mistake in the blow.
a. Aberratio Ictus b. Error in Personae
c. Dura lex sed lex d. Praeter Intentionem
90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present.
a. Attempted b. Frustrated
c. Consummated d. Accomplished
91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
a. Absolutory Cause b. Mistake of facts
c. Conspiracy d. Felony
92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.
a. Material b. Formal
c. Seasonal d. Continuing
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious.
a. Culpable b. Intentional
c. Deliberate d. Inculpable
94. It indicates deficiency of perception.
a. Negligence b. Diligence
c. Imprudence d. Inference
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.
a. Offenses b. Misdemeanours
c. Felonies d. Ordinances
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines.
a. General b. Territorial
c. Prospective d. Retroactive
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.
a. Bill of Attainder b. Bill of Rights
c. Ex Post Facto Law d. Penal Law
98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
a. Search b. Seizure
c. Arrest d. Detention
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?
a. Robbery b. Farm Theft
c. Qualified Theft d. Simple Theft
100. Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was the crime committed?
a. Child rape b. Qualified Rape
c. Statutory Rape d. None

1. B 26. B 51. B 76. A
2. B 27. C 52. D 77. D
3. B 28. B 53. A 78. A
4. B 29. C 54. B 79. A
5. D 30. C 55. C 80. C
6. D 31. B 56. D 81. A
7. C 32. C 57. D 82. C
8. C 33. B 58. C 83. B
9. C 34. A 59. C 84. A
10. A 35. C 60. B 85. D
11. C 36. B 61. C 86. D
12. C 37. C 62. A 87. C
13. C 38. A 63. C 88. D
14. B 39. D 64. B 89. A
15. B 40. C 65. A 90. C
16. D 41. C 66. B 91. B
17. B 42. B 67. D 92. A
18. C 43. A 68. C 93. A
19. A 44. D 69. D 94. A
20. C 45. D 70. D 95. A
21. C 46. B 71. A 96. A
22. A 47. A 72. C 97. A
23. D 48. D 73. A 98. C
24. D 49. C 74. D 99. C
25. A 50. A 75. B 100. C

im hoping also.

thanx for the latest post. it is very useful for practical exercises.

Assuming all the other requisites of negotiability are present, which of the following instruments is NOT payable to bearer?

a. "Pay to the order of Cash."
b "Pay to the order of Jose Rizal, national hero."
c. "Pay to Pedro Padernal, bearer."
d. "Pay to Pedro Padernal or bearer."

ANSWER: ______

taxation:

Under the tax code, the following are income taxpayers, except:

a. GOCC
b. Estate and Trust
c. Min wage income earners
d. non-resident foreign corp.

ANSWER: _______________

to hanasadako:

on nego question: answer is letter C.
on tax question: answer is letter C.

if im wrong, pls explain, hehehe

correct!

Three of the following are not negotiable which is the exception?

a. "Good to B or order P3,000 upon demand." (Sgd. M)

b. "Pay to bearer G 3,000." (Sgd. A)

c. "Pay to bearer J. Cruz P10,000 and reimburse yourself from the money I deposited to you."
To: B (Sgd. A)

d. "Pay to Reyes or bearer P2,000 out of the funds I deposited with you."
To: B (Sgd. A)

Which of the following is an instrument payable to bearer?

a. Pay to bearer B 1,000

b. Pay to possessor 1,000

c. Pay to B, the bearer 1,000

d. All of the above

Corpo:

Unless the by-laws provide otherwise, written notice of regular meetings shall be sent to all stock holders of record:

a. at least one day prior to the meeting

b. at least two days prior to the meeting

c. at least one week prior to the meeting

d. at least two weeks prior to the meeting

pls post mcq in politial law and remedial law, if you have.

thanks a lot.

on your posted corpo question:

answer: letter a

correct answer: d. at least two weeks prior to the meeting

i will post next week.

what is the legal basis or particular section in corpo law?

thanks a lot for the future posting.

Section 50. Regular and special meetings of stockholders or members. – Regular meetings of stockholders or members shall be held annually on a date fixed in the by-laws, or if not so fixed, on any date in April of every year as determined by the board of directors or trustees: Provided, That written notice of regular meetings shall be sent to all stockholders or members of record at least two (2) weeks prior to the meeting, unless a different period is required by the by-laws.

Special meetings of stockholders or members shall be held at any time deemed necessary or as provided in the by-laws: Provided, however, That at least one (1) week written notice shall be sent to all stockholders or members, unless otherwise provided in the by-laws.

thank you....

Choose which of the following is correct:

a. Documentary evidence is that which is directly addressed to the senses of the court and consists of tangible things
b. Documentary evidence is offered when a document is presented to prove its existence or condition
c. Where the purpose is to prove a collateral fact that took place while a document was being prepared, rule on documentary evidence shall apply
d. Documentary evidence applies only when the contents of such document is the subject of inquiry

Evidence, to be admissible should be relevant and competent. Under this premise, can evidence which has great evidentiary weight or probative value be not admitted in evidence?

a. No, because the Rules on Evidence expressly provide that evidence which is relevant and competent is admissible.
b. Yes, if the court exercise its discretion and decided not to admit the evidence.
c. Yes, if the evidence is excluded by any law or rule.
d. Yes, if the counsel offering the evidence did not object to its inadmission.
e. No, because to be relevant and competent, evidence must have great evidentiary weight.

Benedict Bird was accused of bribing a police officer during a raid in a karaoke bar in which he is a regular customer. During trial, the police officer offered to the court as evidence Bird’s text message offering the said officer PhP 500.00 in exchange for the dropping of the case against him. The court admitted the text message as evidence. Was the court correct in admitting said text message as evidence?

a. No, because it is not considered as an electronic evidence.
b. No, because text message could be replaced and manipulated.
c. Yes, because text messages could be stored in the mobile phone.
d. Yes, because it can be proven by the testimony of the person who is a party to the case or has personal knowledge of the same.
e. Yes, because the authenticity of the text message could be verified in network’s service provider.