2 1/2 years later, in August 2012, I received a notice that I should settle unliquidated advances in the amount of 200+K. This is the first time I was notified of such discrepancy. Am I liable under command responsibility when I am informed of my responsibility after 2 1/2 years? Our fiscal year during that time in June 2010. Why was I not informed of the unliquidated advances after June 2010 audit? I think this is the command responsibility of our Finance Dept.
When should a notice of unliquidated cash advances be served? Is serving the first notice 2 1/2 years later fair and just?
Please help...