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hi, thank you for this site. this is a lot of help. i was just wondering what if someone *adrian* is suspected of being an accomplice to theft but the real thief *jo* has already submitted an affidavit that that adrian is not and that the theft was only done by him.
the case is adrian being the one who issues him the receipt and jo tampers with it.
1.how will this affidavit hold up in court?
the complainant insists that since the receipt came from adrian, he is also held responsible.
2.is this statement true - once a company issues a receipt, the company is no longer held liable for any tampering made afterwards?
of course unless it can be proven that adrian was part of the tampering which brings me back to the affidavit clearing his name.
3.is it still possible to 'drag' adrian into the case because of questionable tampering on the receipts even if there already is an affidavit clearing his name?
thank you so much
the case is adrian being the one who issues him the receipt and jo tampers with it.
1.how will this affidavit hold up in court?
the complainant insists that since the receipt came from adrian, he is also held responsible.
2.is this statement true - once a company issues a receipt, the company is no longer held liable for any tampering made afterwards?
of course unless it can be proven that adrian was part of the tampering which brings me back to the affidavit clearing his name.
3.is it still possible to 'drag' adrian into the case because of questionable tampering on the receipts even if there already is an affidavit clearing his name?
thank you so much
