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Hi!
An employee has been suspended due to grave misconduct.
The company is giving incentives to employees who are perfect in attendance - no absences and tardiness.
Now, the employee asserted that he is entitled to the incentive since the suspension is not his choice.
What is a good explanation to the forfeiture of the incentive. The company policy is silent on suspension. It used however the word absent. Could I assert that the suspension in effect made him absent from work?
Thanks,
Em
An employee has been suspended due to grave misconduct.
The company is giving incentives to employees who are perfect in attendance - no absences and tardiness.
Now, the employee asserted that he is entitled to the incentive since the suspension is not his choice.
What is a good explanation to the forfeiture of the incentive. The company policy is silent on suspension. It used however the word absent. Could I assert that the suspension in effect made him absent from work?
Thanks,
Em
salamat!
