I had mortgaged to a bank two properties which were located in different localities. Last year the bank has foreclosed on my mortgage but they failed to include one of the properties in the court action. My question is whether the foreclosure of one property could be considered as the consummation of the mortgage. Therefore, the other property which they failed to foreclosed is now considered free from the mortgage and thus, I as owner, could take it back. If this is so, what action should I take?