KINDLY ADVISE PLS.

Hi! I would like to know if there will be a legal liability if a woman did not changed the status from single to married and used her maiden's name instead in applying for jobs since she was abandoned by her husband for more than 2 decades ago. Present employer now is reviewing the clause she signed when she applied for work. Did not have intention in doing so but for personal reasons that the woman did not want the husband to have any claims on whatever she will have and out of the pain and abandonment the husband did. Will this person be terminated from the job?
Will really appreciate enlightment regarding this matter.
Thanks!

imo, that should not be considered a basis for termination