I'd just like to ask, If the parents sold their property to their illegitimate child, they received the money and there is proof of this, does the legitimate child have a claim to that property when the parents die?
I know if you use deed of donation then there is this thing called 'collation' where the legitimate child can have the donation revoked, but what if it's a sale? is the ownership of the buyer even if he is an illegitimate child of the seller absolute?
Thanks