**SALE OF PROPERTY***

Our great grandfather left a piece of land that was acquired during the American period. When he died, the land was not subvided into his heirs: my grandfather and his brother. The former left no heir. Thus, at this time heirs to the property only come from the line of my grandfather.

The offspring of my grandfather were not able to judicially subdivide the property. The title still bears the name of our great grandfather. My father (A) is the only remaining direct heir of the land. However, the sons of the two brothers of my father (B and C) are also designated heirs to the land.

Now, there's a prospective buyer to the land. However, A does not agree with the terms set by the buyer. B and C would like to sell their portions to the buyer. Can B and C just go ahead and sell their portions even if A would not want any part in the transaction?

Your advice on this matter will be appreciated.

First, i deleted the other thread you created since it covers one and the same topic. I deemed it proper just to have one thread to avoid redundancy.
Inform your buyer that the property is co-owned by many and that he needs to get the consent of all of them in order for the sale to proceed.

In so far as the co-owners, you need to meet and talk about this matter carefully. It is possible that you can partition the property so that each and every individual co-owner will be given their definite share on the said property.As to how it will be done, it depends on the decision of each co-owner.