May i ask your opinion on a certain property, house and lot, which we paid in 2001 but was not issued a deed of sale, only acknowledgment receipt signed by the title owner. Recently the children sent text message to us that they now refused to sell the property and that they will refund to us the amount we paid in 2001. What shall we do now Atty., we feel it is very unfair for them to return in partial payments the money they have already signed/ acknowledged and used to enrich themselves. I refused that we be refunded but what is the proper remedy we can do? Do we have to sue them in court or how can we annotate the title when we only have the acknowledgment receipt? Please help us. Thanks.