HELP: please enlighten me on this matter

I have been paying for a property that my family considers our ancestral home as we have been residing there to almost 30 years. In March 2010 I got married to a man who has children from his past relationships. Both children do not live with us, but they carry my husband's surname. We do not have a child of our own yet.

Meanwhile, the landowner of the property has given me until November 2011 to complete the remaining installments for it before he transfers the title to me. Honestly, I don't want my husband to have any right to that property as it has been my family's home for almost 3 years. Moreover, the money that I will use to pay for it came from my savings when i was still single, and the money that I will use to pay the remaining installments will come from my own income.

Please therefore enlighten me on the following:
1. Can I still use my maiden name on the title of the lot?
2. If this is not possible, what can i do to exclude my husband from having any rights to the property?
3. My father died in 2008. Can i have my mother's name in the title?
4. If I have to use my married name, up to what extent would the rights of my husband be to the said property? Also, would his children from his past relationships have a right to the property?

Thank You in advance.

all those schemes will make still make it conjugal property.

what you can do is to name it to your mom, and later your mom donates it to you, then it will be your separate property.