Good afternoon! I'm buying a property but the title owner is already deceased. The wife, mentioned in the title as the wife, is selling it to me assuming she has full ownership of his husband's estate. Is the wife right to assume such when the family code seems to suggest otherwise? If not, is extrajudidical settlement of estate with her children required prior to them selling the property?
Your advice on this matter will be highly appreciated. Thanks in advance!
Best regards,
Tope