I am planning to buy a land which as of now is still in mortgage. The terms of payment is a down payment and the remaining will be monthly for 2 years. There is a verbal agreement that when he gets the certain amount he will pay the bank for the property mortgage. I have in mind, what if he will not pay the bank and we will complete the contract to sell and deed of absolute sale, there is a possibility that i will pay the bank for it.
Is that possible? and how can I avoid this? What are other risk that i am taking?
Thanks a lot.