Ours is a case settled through compromise agreement, approved by the court. Thus, the judgment. For every property left by our father, we the children (A) get 3/4 share while another party (B)gets 1/4. One lot was sold but we have to give the other party (B) their 1/4 share. The other party wants to be paid (monetary not land). In the agreement, it is indicated that we pay them using the market value of the actual payment. Does it mean the current market value of the lot? We've got the current Tax Dec. of the lot and the market value is only P20, 000.00 for the 2 hectare area by the road but hilly or mountainous. However the other party (B) has their own price of the lot amounting to 3 million pesos for the 1/4 share alone. Is their computation right or wrong? Again, the compromise agreement indicated market value only not selling price. I hope anyone with knowledge on this matter help us. Thank you.
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